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> The mathematicians of 100 years ago also all understood, and the meaning hasn't changed over the 100 years.

Isn't that the subject of the whole argument? That mathematicians have taken the road off in a very specific direction, and everyone disagreeing is ejected from the field, rather like occurred more recently in theoretical physics with string theory.

Prior to that time quite clearly you had formal proofs which do not meet the symbolic abstraction requirements that pure mathematicians apparently believe are axiomatic to their field today, even if they attempt to pretend otherwise, as argued over the case of Euclid elsewhere. If the Pythagoreans were reincarnated, as they probably expected, they would no doubt be dismissed as crackpots by these same people.



Not all proofs are formal, and most published papers are not formal in the strictest sense. That is why they talk about "formalizing" a proof if there is some question about it. It is that formalization process which often finds flaws.


>quite clearly you had formal proofs which do not meet the symbolic abstraction requirements

I've been unable to imagine or recall an example. Can you provide one?




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